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In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$.

I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory.

This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$.

I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory.

This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$.

I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory.

This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

Is Proposition 2.6 in J. Silverman's book Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves correct?

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$. 

I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory. 

This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

Is J. Silverman's book Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves correct?

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$. I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory. This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

Is Proposition 2.6 in J. Silverman's book Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves correct?

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$. 

I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory. 

This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

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Hair80
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In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$. I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory. This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$. I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory. This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively. In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

In J. Silverman's book "Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" Chapter 2 Proposition 2.6 (a) it is considered a non constant morphism $\Phi:C_{1}→C_{2}$ between two smooth curves defined over a perfect field $K$. I am having trouble understanding why there is no inertia degree appearing in the degree formula $\deg(\Phi)=\sum_{P\in \Phi^{-1}(Q)}e_{\Phi}(P)$ for any $Q\in C_{2}$. This is clear in characteristic 0 as $K$ becomes algebraically closed. But I don't see why in general the inertia degree should be 1 and not appear in the well known degree formula as it does in standard Number Theory. This is what I mean: as the curves are smooth the regular functions rings are Dedekind domains and we have the unique factorization $M_{\Phi(P)}=\prod_{P′\in \Phi^{-1}(\Phi(P))}M_{P'}^{e_{\Phi}(P′)}$ being $M_{\Phi(P)}$ and $M_{P}$ the maximal ideals associated to $\Phi(P)$ and $P$ respectively (as $\Phi$ is non constant $\Phi^{*}$ is injective and embeds $K[C_{2}]$ in $K[C_{1}]$). In the degree formula the inertia degree should appear by standard Number Theory, which is not the case.

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