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Aug 7, 2016 at 18:01 comment added Chris Wuthrich That looks like a stab in the dark to me. I can't see a reason why this quotient is finite for a single p, let alone trivial. The rank of E(L) is infinite, the quotient is a subgroup of $H^1(G, E[p])$ which is infinite dimensional, because G has many cyclic quotients of order p.
Aug 7, 2016 at 15:32 history edited The Thin Whistler CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 7, 2016 at 11:35 history edited The Thin Whistler CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 7, 2016 at 11:06 history asked The Thin Whistler CC BY-SA 3.0