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Aug 5, 2016 at 13:54 comment added Uri Bader I wouldn't call the fact that $\text{SL}_n(\mathbb{Z})<\text{SL}_n(\mathbb{R})$ is Z-dense a result of the Borel density theorem (even though this fact indeed follows from the BDT). This is almost a triviality.
Aug 5, 2016 at 13:50 vote accept Peter Patzt
Aug 5, 2016 at 13:28 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 8
Aug 5, 2016 at 13:15 history asked Peter Patzt CC BY-SA 3.0