Timeline for For positive definite $A,B$ why does $AB+BA$ tend to be positive definite?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
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| May 20, 2021 at 14:24 | comment | added | Guillaume Aubrun | The fact that the percentages are backwards is unfortunate, as otherwise the question is very interesting. Should we edit the post? | |
| May 20, 2021 at 14:19 | answer | added | Guillaume Aubrun | timeline score: 4 | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 23:50 | answer | added | David Zhang | timeline score: 32 | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 22:46 | comment | added | David Zhang | Are you sure you don't have the percentages backwards? I tried to reproduce your experiment (using Mathematica), and I find probabilities that are precisely one minus yours -- it is rarer and rarer for $AB+BA$ to be psd as $n$ increases. I am using precisely the same random generation technique. | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 21:54 | vote | accept | Albert Nagi | ||
| Aug 4, 2016 at 21:18 | comment | added | Suvrit | This seems to be a byproduct of the specific choices of eigenvalues and eigenvectors.... | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 21:14 | answer | added | Robert Israel | timeline score: 16 | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 20:52 | comment | added | მამუკა ჯიბლაძე | Real? Complex? Hermitian? Symmetric? | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 20:30 | history | edited | Albert Nagi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Aug 4, 2016 at 20:20 | comment | added | Vidit Nanda | Is it immediately clear that you are noticing a tendency of all positive semidefinite matrices? I can't see why your method of generating candidate $A$'s and $B$'s would give the uniform distribution on psd matrices, so maybe this phenomenon is a property of the measure rather than the set? | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 20:09 | history | edited | Albert Nagi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Aug 4, 2016 at 18:34 | history | edited | Albert Nagi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Aug 4, 2016 at 18:24 | review | First posts | |||
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| Aug 4, 2016 at 18:21 | history | asked | Albert Nagi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |