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S Dec 9, 2017 at 9:56 comment added Antonio DJC then you can use it to confirm your conjecture. In the case of the plus (top) sign, it follows easily that $s=1/2$ is a zero.
S Dec 9, 2017 at 9:56 comment added Antonio DJC Using the gamma function's reflection formula, you can rewrite your expression as \begin{aligned}D\Big[-\frac{1}{\Gamma (s)}\pm\frac1{\Gamma(1-s)}\Big]&=D\Big[\frac{-\Gamma(1-s)\pm\Gamma(s)}{\pi\csc\pi s}\Big]\\ &=-\cos\pi s\;[\Gamma(1-s)\mp\Gamma(s)]+\pi^{-1}\sin\pi s\;[\Gamma'(1-s)\pm\Gamma'(s)]\end{aligned}so if the answer you cited can be extended to $\sin\pi s\,(\Gamma'(1-s)\mp\Gamma'(s))$, (cont.)
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jul 24, 2016 at 9:07 comment added joro X-Ray for the plus sign: s31.postimg.org/x81i3jp7v/agno2.png Doesn't show complex zeros off the line.
Jul 24, 2016 at 9:06 comment added joro The bug is in my code. "derivative=1" doesn't compute the derivative as I wrongly thought. Will delete very soon.
Jul 23, 2016 at 16:06 history asked Agno CC BY-SA 3.0