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Jul 12, 2016 at 17:53 answer added Neil Hoffman timeline score: 3
Jul 12, 2016 at 9:52 comment added HJRW This follows in a reasonably standard way from the fact that $\pi_1N$ is residually finite. I'll try to find time to write something soon, but I expect someone else will answer first.
Jul 12, 2016 at 9:50 history edited HJRW
Added gt.geometric-topology tag.
Jul 11, 2016 at 22:04 review First posts
Jul 12, 2016 at 2:01
Jul 11, 2016 at 22:00 history asked Álvaro Krüger Ramos CC BY-SA 3.0