Skip to main content

Timeline for An irresistible inequality

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

11 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jul 10, 2016 at 14:55 comment added Fedor Petrov If you replace $e$ to $t=e^a$, then multiply by $a^2$ and denote $ax+a=y$, you get $g(y-a)+y^2/(e^y+1)^2$.
Jul 10, 2016 at 13:59 comment added T. Amdeberhan @FedorPetrov: very nice argument, thanks. Will see how to adopt this to the case (2), e replaced by t, or someone else does. I'm also curious if there is any other approach.
Jul 8, 2016 at 13:26 comment added Francesco Polizzi @FedorPetrov: well, the way in which the question is asked (for instance, the imperative tone and the last remark) gives the impression that it is a challenge for the MO users, and this kind of questions are surely non-acceptable here. Rewording the question in the sense you suggest might be a possibility.
Jul 8, 2016 at 13:20 comment added Fedor Petrov @FrancescoPolizzi sorry, this text was written before the question became officially considered an off-topic, or simultaneously. If you find it reasonable, I may remove it and send to OP elsewhere (I know him personally). I think, if the question is supposed to mean something like 'please explain this fact arising in my research with a short and elegant argument', it is suitable on MO, there are many such questions.
Jul 8, 2016 at 13:09 comment added Francesco Polizzi As a rule of thumb, one should not answer off-topic questions (for instance, in order not to encourage them).
Jul 8, 2016 at 12:54 history edited Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0
added 1437 characters in body
Jul 8, 2016 at 12:51 history undeleted Fedor Petrov
Jul 8, 2016 at 9:07 history deleted Fedor Petrov via Vote
Jul 8, 2016 at 9:06 comment added Fedor Petrov Oh, it is plus in denominator, not minus. Sorry.
Jul 8, 2016 at 8:39 comment added T. Amdeberhan The second summand is not decreasing.
Jul 8, 2016 at 8:37 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0