Timeline for When is the restriction map $res:H^2(G,U(1))\to H^2(Z_p\times Z_p,U(1))$ not the zero map?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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Jul 8, 2016 at 20:29 | comment | added | David Stephen | This was my guess as well, but I wasn't able to rigorously prove both directions. Can you say a bit more about why you think this should be true? | |
Jul 8, 2016 at 8:03 | comment | added | Derek Holt | If $G$ is abelian, then I think the answer is yes if and only if some Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$ has $C_p \times C_p$ as a direct factor. | |
Jul 8, 2016 at 1:11 | comment | added | Geoff Robinson | There are many papers about detecting cohomology of finite group $G$ on its elementary Abelian $p$-subgroups, ( see, eg the work of J.F. Carlson). | |
Jul 8, 2016 at 0:23 | history | asked | David Stephen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |