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May 23, 2018 at 22:34 comment added Pietro Majer hence $k=(a/b)^{1\over q-p}$.
May 23, 2018 at 17:44 comment added Pietro Majer Just multiply the equation by a suitable constant so that it becomes $-(kx)^q+(kx)^p=m$ then change variabile.
May 23, 2018 at 15:08 comment added Iddo Hanniel @Pietro Majer, I'm not familiar with this. Can you elaborate (or give a reference) on how to do this simplifying reduction?
May 23, 2018 at 6:26 comment added Pietro Majer note that one can absorb $a$ and $b$, exploiting the different homogeneity, and reduce the equation to a simpler form with $a=b=1$
May 22, 2018 at 18:29 answer added Iddo Hanniel timeline score: 4
Jul 5, 2016 at 10:13 history edited Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 3.0
grammar edits in the title
Jul 5, 2016 at 10:05 history edited Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 3.0
made the question more precise and corrected a wording error
Jul 4, 2016 at 18:32 answer added Robert Israel timeline score: 1
Jul 4, 2016 at 16:58 history asked Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 3.0