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Mar 19, 2019 at 23:08 vote accept Noah Schweber
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 13, 2016 at 0:36 answer added Noah Schweber timeline score: 3
S Jul 11, 2016 at 17:48 history bounty ended CommunityBot
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S Jul 3, 2016 at 16:37 history bounty started Noah Schweber
S Jul 3, 2016 at 16:37 history notice added Noah Schweber Draw attention
Jul 1, 2016 at 15:37 comment added Noah Schweber @JoelDavidHamkins Yes - I did not mean to imply that having a perfect OD subset is the only way to have $\theta_0(X)=\theta_0$. That's a good point.
Jul 1, 2016 at 15:30 comment added Joel David Hamkins If $X$ is Andreas's set from your other question ($X$=the non-OD reals), then $\theta_0(X)=\theta_0$, because every real arises as the odd-bits of a real in $X$, and so with $X$ you can get just as high as with $\mathbb{R}$.
Jul 1, 2016 at 13:43 history asked Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 3.0