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Jun 28, 2016 at 17:29 comment added Jeremy Rickard @tj_ It's nothing to do with the axioms of set theory. All I'm saying is that there is one case in which the generalized $p$-height is not an ordinal, and in that case we call the $p$-height $\infty$ and deem that to be greater than all ordinals. If you prefer, we could just say that it's not defined, and make the necessary but annoying adjustments to all statements about the ordering of generalized $p$-heights.
Jun 28, 2016 at 14:28 vote accept Ilan Barnea
Jun 28, 2016 at 14:19 comment added tj_ Is the existence of $\infty$ compatible with axioms from set theory ? For example why can't one define $\infty + 1$ ?
Jun 28, 2016 at 9:04 history edited Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 3.0
minor rewording
Jun 28, 2016 at 8:41 history answered Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 3.0