Timeline for Variation of Radon transform for probability measures on $\mathbb C$
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 27, 2016 at 7:59 | answer | added | Uri Bader | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jun 26, 2016 at 19:51 | comment | added | PhoemueX | As shown in this question (math.stackexchange.com/questions/1138259/…), two (finite) measures already agree if they agree on all balls of a fixed size. Thus, certainly in your case, they also agree. | |
| Jun 25, 2016 at 21:43 | vote | accept | Andreas Thom | ||
| Jun 25, 2016 at 21:43 | |||||
| Jun 25, 2016 at 18:35 | comment | added | Uri Bader | A guessed answer for the third question: for $f\in C_0(\mathbb{C})$, $\int fd\mu=\lim_{R\to\infty} \lim_{r \to 0} 1/(\pi r^2) \int_{|z|<R} \mu_z([0,r))f(z)$. | |
| Jun 25, 2016 at 18:14 | comment | added | Uri Bader | $\mu_z([0,r))=\mu(B(z,r))$, so the answer to the first uestion is surely "yes". | |
| Jun 25, 2016 at 17:50 | answer | added | Christian Remling | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jun 25, 2016 at 15:34 | history | asked | Andreas Thom | CC BY-SA 3.0 |