Timeline for Speed of convergence in Lebesgue's density theorem
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
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Jun 25, 2016 at 17:04 | history | edited | Christian Remling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jun 24, 2016 at 23:52 | history | undeleted | Christian Remling | ||
Jun 24, 2016 at 23:52 | history | edited | Christian Remling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jun 24, 2016 at 16:40 | history | deleted | Christian Remling | via Vote | |
Jun 24, 2016 at 14:35 | comment | added | user240643 | @FedorPetrov I think you're right. Let $K_N$ be the set you defined, then you get $a_n(K_N)=1/4$ for all $n<N$ and $a_n(K_N)=0$ for all $n\geq N$, so $\sum_n a_n(K_N)=(N-1)/4$. But there really is no "limit-analogue" for the sets $K_N$ as $N\rightarrow\infty$. 'Infinite' sets can't be that balanced. I'm going to think about your and ChristianRemling's answer now, thanks so far! | |
Jun 24, 2016 at 7:57 | comment | added | Fedor Petrov | @ChrtistianRemling Hm, what if $K$ is a union of segments $[2i/2^N,(2i+1)/2^N]$ for $i=0,\dots,2^{N-1}-1$? On the first glance, all $a_n$ for $n< N$ are bounded from below by $1/8$ or something like that? | |
Jun 24, 2016 at 6:34 | history | edited | Christian Remling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jun 24, 2016 at 6:02 | comment | added | Fedor Petrov | It is bit unclear what exactly does your argument prove. That $\sum_{n\le N} a_n$ always does not exceed, say, 100 for any set? | |
Jun 24, 2016 at 1:28 | history | edited | Christian Remling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jun 23, 2016 at 22:13 | history | answered | Christian Remling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |