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Feb 9, 2020 at 6:58 answer added Robert Furber timeline score: 5
Jan 5, 2020 at 17:06 comment added Frederik vom Ende Interestingly enough for the more general case of $B(X^*,Y^*)$ (i.e. for two different dual Banach spaces) the answer to this question in general is no, cf. this counterexample by Jochen Glück. Of course this does not settle the special case $X=Y$ OP asked about---but it might give some further intuition for this problem.
Sep 6, 2016 at 3:12 history edited Yemon Choi
this is an FA question not a GN question
Jun 16, 2016 at 2:06 comment added Yemon Choi Also, I don't think your description of the weak-star topology on B(X) is quite right, unless X is Hilbert space. The predual of B(X) is $X\hat{\otimes} X_*$; what you describe seems to be more like the weak-star version of WOT
Jun 16, 2016 at 2:04 comment added Yemon Choi Note that $B_{w^*}(X) = \{ T^* \colon T \in B(X_*)\}$ which makes me suspect the answer to your question is no
Jun 15, 2016 at 20:54 history asked user64615 CC BY-SA 3.0