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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jun 15, 2016 at 20:26 history edited Michael Zieve CC BY-SA 3.0
added 218 characters in body
Jun 15, 2016 at 20:15 vote accept Michael Zieve
Jun 15, 2016 at 10:34 history edited Frieder Ladisch CC BY-SA 3.0
Typos in Bibl., link to MR
Jun 15, 2016 at 5:03 answer added Michael Giudici timeline score: 13
Jun 15, 2016 at 4:05 history edited Michael Zieve CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected typo
Jun 15, 2016 at 2:26 comment added ex0du5 Thank you for removing your responses where you were insulted by my suggestion. I would ask that you also remove the responses where you accuse me of not reading your post as well, as they also add nothing to the discussion. If you have nothing to respond to me with relevant to my suggestion, you have no obligation, but please do not come to this site simply to accuse your peers of acts you have no knowledge of. I read your post in its entirety.
Jun 15, 2016 at 1:52 comment added Michael Zieve I am not asking whether Hering proved the result in one of the papers of his which I discussed at length. I know perfectly well that he did not do so -- it's very easy to see that even the statement of the result is not contained in those papers. I am asking whether anyone either knows a reference I missed, or can fill in the first step in Liebeck's proof which I described.
Jun 15, 2016 at 1:49 comment added Michael Zieve Perhaps you didn't read the bulk of my post, so I summarize: Huppert-Blackburn 1982, Kantor 1985, Dixon-Mortimer 1996, and Cameron 1999 all cited specific papers of Hering's and said that in them he proved things which I checked that he did not prove. It is also true that Cameron 1981 claims there is some unspecified paper by Hering which proves this. But there is little doubt that he had in mind one of the same Hering papers which he and others cited elsewhere. I have already discussed this issue with multiple expert group theorists, but not with every single group theorist in the world.
Jun 15, 2016 at 1:02 comment added ex0du5 I am sorry. Your question seemed to be "I am trying to determine whether the literature contains a complete proof of the classification of finite 2-transitive groups." But you seem insulted that I suggested asking one who has made the claim you are asking about. If you are already convinced at the result, I'm not sure what you are even asking for, and like announcing new results, may be off topic for the site.
Jun 15, 2016 at 0:54 comment added ex0du5 I understand your suspicion, which could very well be justified. But I find it is often good to get clarification from those who have familiarity with the field and have stated something I am struggling with. It is surprising what I can learn with a well placed question. And it is always best to be fair to a person and give them the opportunity to tell me what they mean, even if it proves my assumptions.
Jun 15, 2016 at 0:30 comment added ex0du5 Have you asked Peter Cameron what results of Hering's he was referring to? He appears still active professionally (www-circa.mcs.st-and.ac.uk/~pjc).
Jun 14, 2016 at 23:22 history asked Michael Zieve CC BY-SA 3.0