Timeline for The non-existence of the fine moduli scheme of vector bundles. Why?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 13 at 22:31 | history | edited | LSpice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Name of "this one"; tidying
|
| Nov 13 at 16:15 | answer | added | Tom Mrowka | timeline score: 7 | |
| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://math.stackexchange.com/ with https://math.stackexchange.com/
|
|
| Jun 21, 2016 at 3:02 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jun 28, 2016 at 3:02 | |||||
| Jun 15, 2016 at 18:44 | answer | added | Joe Berner | timeline score: 7 | |
| Jun 14, 2016 at 21:24 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jun 15, 2016 at 18:53 | |||||
| Jun 14, 2016 at 19:03 | history | edited | Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Corrected typo in title, improved link description, added capitals
|
| Jun 14, 2016 at 18:32 | comment | added | Lazzaro Campeotti | I don't understand what Question 1 is asking. $f^*$ is contravariant, as you say. How would it take a bundle on $T$ to a bundle on $S$? For Question 2, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Representable_functor | |
| Jun 14, 2016 at 17:06 | answer | added | user19475 | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jun 14, 2016 at 16:56 | history | asked | Marion | CC BY-SA 3.0 |