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Jun 17, 2016 at 6:03 answer added Duchamp Gérard H. E. timeline score: 3
Jun 14, 2016 at 4:04 comment added Duchamp Gérard H. E. @YemonChoi Of course, you're right.
Jun 13, 2016 at 15:20 comment added Yemon Choi @DuchampGérardH.E. Can we not take the representation of $A$ on $A\oplus {\bf C}$ to get a faithful representation, and hence an equivalent norm that is submultiplicative?
Jun 13, 2016 at 4:09 comment added Duchamp Gérard H. E. No, unit serves to ensure that the left (resp. right) regular rep. is faithful. If your Banach algebra has no zero divisor the statement works (with only one multiplication).
Jun 13, 2016 at 1:06 history edited Don John Prep CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 13, 2016 at 1:05 comment added Don John Prep @DavidHandelman : Yes sir, please forgive my carelessness
Jun 13, 2016 at 0:40 comment added David Handelman Do you mean, in which multiplication (right and left) is continuous?
Jun 13, 2016 at 0:23 history asked Don John Prep CC BY-SA 3.0