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Sep 13, 2021 at 22:21 comment added James E Hanson @YemonChoi That is basically what I am wondering, although I wouldn't necessarily phrase it in terms of axioms. I would phrase it like this: Is there a rational number $r$ such that $d(\ell_\infty,L_\infty) < r$ and $d(\ell_\infty,L_\infty) > r$ are both consistent with ZFC?
Sep 13, 2021 at 1:56 comment added Yemon Choi @JamesHanson I'm not sure I follow (since I am a caveman when it comes to set theory). Is your question whether additional axioms might allow one to "construct" isomorphisms $\ell_\infty \leftrightarrow L_\infty$ that have smaller norm than ones constructed with "bare" ZFC?
Sep 10, 2021 at 21:15 comment added James E Hanson Is there an argument that ZFC actually uniquely specifies the value of $d(\ell_\infty,L_\infty)$?
Sep 10, 2021 at 13:09 comment added YCor Does the proof provide an upper bound?
Sep 10, 2021 at 13:08 history edited YCor
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Sep 10, 2021 at 12:54 answer added Fred Dashiell timeline score: 2
Jun 14, 2016 at 9:38 comment added Hannes Thiel @YemonChoi That is a nice idea. Certainly $X=L_\infty$ and $Y=\ell_\infty$ are injective Banach lattices. It looks like the embedding $\ell_\infty \to L_\infty$ (from the post of Theo Buehler) does identify $\ell_\infty$ with a sublattice of $L_\infty$. Thus, one would get a positive projection from $X$ onto $Y$. For the embedding $L_\infty \to \ell_\infty$ this is not clear to me. Maybe it is not possible to embed $L_\infty$ as a closed sublattice of $\ell_\infty$. There are structure results for lattice homomorphism $C(K_1)\to C(K_2)$, see e.g. 3.2.10 in "Banach Lattices" by Meyer-Nieberg.
Jun 14, 2016 at 8:28 comment added Yemon Choi @HannesThiel I admit I did not think this through very carefully. My idea (which may have a silly mistake) was to get a positive norm-1 projection $P$ from $L_\infty$ onto $\ell_\infty$, in which case $I-P$ should also be a positive norm-1 projection (I think?) onto the complementary subspace.
Jun 13, 2016 at 20:26 comment added Hannes Thiel @YemonChoi Following the construction from the post of Theo Buehler, I understand that $d(X,X\oplus_\infty Y)\leq 4$, and similarly $d(X\oplus_\infty Y,Y)\leq 4$, for $X=L_\infty$ and $Y=\ell_\infty$. But this only gives $d(X,Y)\leq 16$, Do you think that $d(X,X\oplus_\infty Y)\leq 2$? Since $X$ and $X\oplus_\infty Y$ are not isometrically isomorphic, we have $d(X,X\oplus_\infty Y)\geq 2$. With an upper bound of $2$, we would thus get $d(X,X\oplus_\infty Y)=2$.
Jun 10, 2016 at 12:43 comment added Hannes Thiel I was not aware of the Amir-Cambern theorem, which gives a nice lower bound $d(\ell_\infty,L_\infty)\geq 2$. I looked a little bit at this topic now, and found the paper "A second-dual method for C(X) isomorphisms" by Cohen, J. Funct. Anal. 23 (1976). It contains results about C(K) spaces with BM-distance $<3$. Does anybody see if this can be used to show $d(\ell_\infty,L_\infty)\geq 3$ ?
Jun 9, 2016 at 15:23 comment added Yemon Choi Reading the "construction" given by Theo Buehler (see @RobertIsrael's comment) my guess would be that one can get a BM-distance of $\leq 4$ by careful book-keeping of the isomorphisms, since both $Y=\ell_\infty$ and $X=L_\infty$ are $1$-injective, and since $X\cong_1 X\oplus_\infty X$ and $Y\cong_1 Y\oplus_\infty Y$
Jun 9, 2016 at 6:24 comment added Hannes Thiel If this is relevant, I am interested in the situation assuming ZFC.
Jun 9, 2016 at 6:16 history edited Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 9, 2016 at 0:54 comment added Robert Israel See this discussion of that non-constructivity (in particular t.b.'s answer which shows that in $ZF + DC + PM_\omega$ they are not isomorphic).
Jun 9, 2016 at 0:46 comment added Gerald Edgar Banach spaces $l^\infty$ and $L^\infty$ are isomorphic, but isomorphisms are not constructive. Something like the Hahn-Banach theorem is required to prove the existence of an isomorphism.
Jun 8, 2016 at 23:52 answer added Bunyamin Sari timeline score: 10
Jun 8, 2016 at 21:16 comment added Hannes Thiel Yes, they are isomorphic and therefore the distance is finite.
Jun 8, 2016 at 21:12 comment added Bunyamin Sari Yes, it is well known that they are isomorphic. This follows from the injectivity of these spaces and Pelczynski decomposition method. The details can be found, for instance, in Albiac-Kalton. I am not sure if the answer to the question is known though.
Jun 8, 2016 at 21:12 comment added Nik Weaver @DenisSerre: $l^\infty$ and $L^\infty$ are isomorphic as Banach spaces. I think this is due to Pelczynski.
Jun 8, 2016 at 21:00 comment added Denis Serre Is there any reason to think that it is finite ?
Jun 8, 2016 at 19:53 history asked Hannes Thiel CC BY-SA 3.0