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David Hansen
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Let $A$ be an $\mathbf{F}_p$-algebra such that $\Omega_{A/\mathbf{F}_p}=0$. Is the Frobenius map on $A$ surjective?

Some context:

i. The converse is clearly true.
ii. The answer is yes if $A$ is a field, or of finite type (the latter with a somewhat silly interpretation).

Let $A$ be an $\mathbf{F}_p$-algebra such that $\Omega_{A/\mathbf{F}_p}=0$. Is the Frobenius map on $A$ surjective?

Some context:

i. The converse is clearly true.
ii. The answer is yes if $A$ is a field, or of finite type.

Let $A$ be an $\mathbf{F}_p$-algebra such that $\Omega_{A/\mathbf{F}_p}=0$. Is the Frobenius map on $A$ surjective?

Some context:

i. The converse is clearly true.
ii. The answer is yes if $A$ is a field, or of finite type (the latter with a somewhat silly interpretation).

Source Link
David Hansen
  • 13.1k
  • 6
  • 55
  • 88

Vanishing of Kahler differentials vs. surjective Frobenius?

Let $A$ be an $\mathbf{F}_p$-algebra such that $\Omega_{A/\mathbf{F}_p}=0$. Is the Frobenius map on $A$ surjective?

Some context:

i. The converse is clearly true.
ii. The answer is yes if $A$ is a field, or of finite type.