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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
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Oct 6, 2016 at 18:03 history edited GH from MO
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Oct 6, 2016 at 17:21 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Sep 6, 2016 at 16:55 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Jun 8, 2016 at 17:46 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński Is this a patent application? :)
Jun 8, 2016 at 15:21 comment added Bugs Bunny mathoverflow.net/questions/241732/…
Jun 8, 2016 at 14:44 comment added Bugs Bunny Sorry, I misunderstood the notation $\{1,2,\ldots n_i\}$. I thought it referred to the order in the infinite set. I guess I must give an answer then.
Jun 8, 2016 at 1:39 comment added Farewell Correction: It seems that he interpreted it as: "Is there an infinite subset of $\mathbb N$ such that there is some permutation of that set which gives that sum of every two adjacent elements is a prime number?"
Jun 8, 2016 at 1:31 comment added Farewell @TonyHuynh Right. It seems that Bugs interpreted my question as: "Is there an infinite subset of $\mathbb N$ such that every two adjacent elements sum to a prime number?". I thought that my question was concise enough.
Jun 8, 2016 at 0:06 comment added Tony Huynh @BugsBunny All numbers from $1$ to $n$ must appear exactly once. So, the question is, are there infinitely many $n$ such that the numbers from $1$ to $n$ can be permuted so that adjacent numbers sum to a prime number.
Jun 7, 2016 at 14:06 comment added Bugs Bunny Why cannot you keep adding numbers so that the last sum is always prime? E.g.: 1,4,3,2,5,6,7,10,9,22,15... All you need is infinitely many primes
Jun 6, 2016 at 22:24 review First posts
Jun 6, 2016 at 22:51
Jun 6, 2016 at 22:21 history asked Farewell CC BY-SA 3.0