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May 26, 2016 at 17:21 comment added Asaf Karagila I just answered that two comments ago.
May 26, 2016 at 17:20 comment added Jaruwat Rodbanjong OK. But in the second question, is power set of X is weakly Dedekind infinite? (In my class, amorphous means cannot be decomposed into two infinite set.)
May 26, 2016 at 17:11 comment added Asaf Karagila No. An amorphous set is always weakly Dedekind finite; but in Cohen's first model there are no infinite weakly Dedekind finite sets.
May 26, 2016 at 17:05 comment added Jaruwat Rodbanjong You mean that "an amorphous set, in Cohen's first model, is infinite & Dedekind finite & weakly Dedekind finite", right?
May 26, 2016 at 16:54 comment added Asaf Karagila Yes, as I wrote. And as I wrote in my answer, if $X$ is infinite (Dedekind finite or not), then $\mathcal P(X)$ can be mapped onto $\omega$.
May 26, 2016 at 16:51 comment added Jaruwat Rodbanjong In my class, a set X is weakly Dedekind finite if there is no surjection from X onto $/omega$.
May 26, 2016 at 16:46 comment added Asaf Karagila Weakly Dedekind finite sets, if my memory serves me right (and you provided no definition) are Dedekind finite sets that cannot be mapped onto $\omega$.
May 26, 2016 at 16:44 comment added Jaruwat Rodbanjong Sorry, but i want to know whether P(X) is "weakly" Dedekind finite or not, not Dedekind finite.
May 26, 2016 at 14:08 comment added Jaruwat Rodbanjong Oh, you made my day. Thank you so much :)
May 26, 2016 at 13:54 history answered Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 3.0