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Feb 16, 2017 at 21:22 history edited Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 18, 2016 at 13:30 comment added Max Alekseyev This has reminded of my own proof of a similar identity: artofproblemsolving.com/community/q1h352146p1915602
May 18, 2016 at 8:35 vote accept Chitsai Liu
Jun 3, 2017 at 1:29
May 17, 2016 at 16:32 comment added esg The following variant of the proof may be simpler: the relation $F(y)=[x^n] \frac{1}{1+x}\frac{1}{(1-\frac{x}{1+x}(1-y))^{n+1}}$ shows that $F(y)=(-1)^n F(1-y)$. Thus $F(1)-F(y)=(-1)^n \sum_{k=1}^n { n\choose k} { n+k \choose k} (-1)^{k+1} (1-y)^{k}$ and (using the Beta-integral $\int_0^1 (1-y)^{k-1} y^n\,dy=\frac{(k-1)!\,n!}{(n+k)!}$) $$\int_0^1 \frac{1 -F(y)}{1-y}\,y^n\,dy=(-1)^n \sum_{k=1}^n{n \choose k}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}=(-1)^n\,H_n$$
May 16, 2016 at 15:46 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0