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Timeline for Chance of something being fixed

Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5

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May 10, 2010 at 13:53 vote accept Paul Reiners
May 7, 2010 at 19:12 comment added Douglas Zare I agree that a normal approximation is likely to be bad. If you must use a normal approximation, use $(-\infty,\frac 12)$ instead of $(-\infty, 0)$ because the count takes values in the integers.
May 7, 2010 at 18:03 comment added Dan Piponi The number of successes before first failure is given by a geometric distribution. It's nothing like a normal distribution. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution
May 7, 2010 at 16:30 comment added Paul Reiners Yes, that's a reasonable assumption.
May 7, 2010 at 16:22 comment added Gabriel Benamy I was assuming that the number of times before the error occurs is roughly normally distributed - if the test is done enough times, a binomial distribution can be well-approximated by a normal distribution. $1-\text{Erf}\left[\sqrt{\frac{t\left(\frac{1}{n}-0\right)}{2 \frac{1}{n} \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)}}\right]$ is the equation for the probability of making a type-1 error (mistakenly assuming that we've fixed it).
May 7, 2010 at 16:18 comment added Dan Piponi I'm not sure you can state a definitive answer like that without making more assumptions than the original asker states. What were your additional assumptions?
May 7, 2010 at 16:10 history answered Gabriel Benamy CC BY-SA 2.5