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Mar 31, 2020 at 15:26 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 31, 2020 at 14:53 history edited C.F.G CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 25, 2020 at 21:50 history edited C.F.G CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 9, 2016 at 18:15 vote accept C.F.G
May 9, 2016 at 15:18 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 14
May 7, 2016 at 20:31 comment added Robert Bryant @C.F.G: Oh. The answer to that is 'no'. For example, if one takes a left-invariant unit vector field $X$ on $M^3=\mathrm{SU}(2)\simeq S^3$ endowed with its bi-invariant metric as a Lie group, then $X:M\to S(M)$ is harmonic as a map between Riemannian manifolds (and as a section of $S(M)$ as well), but $X^\flat$ is not a harmonic $1$-form on $M$, since the only harmonic $1$-form on $M$ is the one that vanishes identically.
May 6, 2016 at 18:45 comment added C.F.G Many thanks R. Bryant. I still did not get the answer my question. is this true: if $X:M\to S(M)$ is Harmonic in the sense of a mapping between two Riemannian manifolds if and only if $\omega= X^\flat$ is Harmonic as 1-form.?
May 6, 2016 at 9:11 comment added Robert Bryant I think that the OP is mixing up a couple of different things: The definition of harmonic for a 1-form is standard, but for unit vector fields, there is another notion of 'harmonic': Regard $S(M)$, the unit sphere bundle of $(M,g)$, as a Riemannian manifold in the natural way and then ask whether a unit vector field $X:M\to S(M)$ is harmonic as a mapping between two Riemannian manifolds. There is actually an additional subtlety, in that one can ask that $X$ be a critical point of the energy functional when one only varies $X$ through sections of $S(M)\to M$ (instead of through all maps).
May 6, 2016 at 7:51 history edited C.F.G CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 3, 2016 at 21:33 comment added Willie Wong I meant Harmonic in the sense of in the kernel of the Laplace-Beltrami operator, which is the sense given by both of your definitions.
May 3, 2016 at 20:59 comment added Deane Yang Perhaps you don't mean to have the word "unit" in your definition of a harmonic vector field?
May 3, 2016 at 20:20 comment added Ryan Budney Harmonic forms are almost never unit length, as far as I am aware. It would appear to me that Definition 1 is a very special definition, largely unrelated to Definition 2. You can of course talk about harmonic vector fields (i.e. dual to harmonic forms) but this results in a different object than your "harmonic unit vector fields".
May 3, 2016 at 20:12 history edited C.F.G CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 3, 2016 at 19:54 comment added C.F.G @Willie Wong thanks for your Hint. what is your means of harmonic? Def. 1 or Def. 2?
May 3, 2016 at 19:46 comment added Willie Wong Note that $0 = \Delta_g(1) = \Delta_g (g(X,X)) = 2 g(X,\Delta_g X) + 2 g(\nabla X, \nabla X)$ you actually have that a unit harmonic vector field on a Riemannian manifold must be parallel. It seems very strange to require that $X$ is unit in the definition.
May 3, 2016 at 19:44 comment added C.F.G Thanks Ben McKay. But in every reference i can't find this relation.
May 3, 2016 at 19:44 comment added Willie Wong @BenMcKay: maybe not exactly a reference on Hodge theory; the OP may be slightly confused by Weitzenbock if we bring the form Laplacian into the picture.
May 3, 2016 at 19:35 comment added Ben McKay The duality from the metric between 1-forms and vector fields shows that your energy is the usual one on 1-forms for which the critical 1-forms are the harmonic ones (see any reference on Hodge theory). But the restriction to unit vector fields is a bit unusual, and doesn't give the same Euler-Lagrange equations, I imagine.
May 3, 2016 at 19:07 history edited C.F.G CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 3, 2016 at 18:54 comment added Saal Hardali It would help if you could provide more context. What is "the energy function" here?
May 3, 2016 at 18:53 review First posts
May 3, 2016 at 18:56
May 3, 2016 at 18:51 history asked C.F.G CC BY-SA 3.0