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Apr 24, 2016 at 9:55 comment added Douglas Zare @Siminore: That's not a particularly special condition on a good approximation to $\xi$. For convergents, it means that the index $n$ is even, since those are the approximations slightly below $\xi$ while the odd convergents are slightly above $\xi$. There are infinitely many even indices.
Apr 24, 2016 at 9:12 comment added Siminore Okay, but I don't think this is enough. To reverse your argument, it seems to me that $p$ must be something special: the integer part of $q \xi$.
Apr 24, 2016 at 8:52 comment added Douglas Zare @Siminore: Since there are infinitely many normalized errors in an interval, there must be limit points.
Apr 24, 2016 at 8:29 comment added Siminore According to my edit, my question seems to be equivalent to the following: given $a$ and $b$ arbitrarily close to some (positive) number $x$, do there exist infinitely many integers $m$ and $n$ such that $$a \leq n^2 \left( \xi - \frac{m}{n} \right)$$ and $$n \left( \xi - \frac{m}{n} \right) < \frac{1}{2}?$$ Hence the question is related to your normalized error, and - roughly - I am asking if this error can converge to some positive number.
Apr 24, 2016 at 3:34 history answered Douglas Zare CC BY-SA 3.0