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Apr 24, 2016 at 19:04 answer added Alexandre Eremenko timeline score: 7
Apr 24, 2016 at 5:36 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 23
Apr 24, 2016 at 2:02 comment added Christian Remling Also posted on MSE: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1755999/…
Apr 24, 2016 at 1:48 comment added Christian Remling ... and conversely, any such function will have a FT in $C_0^{\infty}$.
Apr 24, 2016 at 1:47 comment added Christian Remling @GeraldEdgar: We need the opposite here: $\widehat{f}$ is entire, of exponential type, and a Schwartz function on $\mathbb R^d$. (And I don't think there will be a very explicit example.)
Apr 24, 2016 at 1:08 comment added Gerald Edgar First how about a Fourier transform that is not real-analytic?
Apr 23, 2016 at 23:45 history asked Jonathan CC BY-SA 3.0