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May 7, 2010 at 4:23 vote accept Jack Cheng
May 6, 2010 at 13:25 comment added José Figueroa-O'Farrill I think so. Although formally $\delta(x,y)$ is not a "function" of $x-y$, for all practical purposes it is.
May 6, 2010 at 12:31 vote accept Jack Cheng
May 7, 2010 at 1:42
May 6, 2010 at 12:29 comment added Jack Cheng thanks for the answer, which is very helpful. I want to know whether the following relation is right, $\delta(-\lambda,z+\mu-\lambda)=???\delta(-\mu,z)$ Thanks again.
May 6, 2010 at 11:12 history answered José Figueroa-O'Farrill CC BY-SA 2.5