Timeline for Does $a_n=\prod^n_{k=1}(1-e^{k\alpha \pi i})$ converge to zero when $\alpha$ is irrational?
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 19, 2016 at 22:15 | history | migrated | from math.stackexchange.com (revisions) | ||
| Mar 2, 2016 at 1:27 | history | answered | Robert Israel | CC BY-SA 3.0 |