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Apr 22, 2016 at 7:51 history closed Asaf Karagila
Franz Lemmermeyer
Stefan Kohl
Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta
Wolfgang
Duplicate of Does $|(X\times\{0\}) \cup (X\times\{1\})| \leq |X|$ for $X$ infinite imply ${\sf AC}$?
Apr 21, 2016 at 16:00 review Close votes
Apr 22, 2016 at 7:51
Apr 19, 2016 at 18:31 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Apr 19, 2016 at 15:02 comment added Asaf Karagila I was not wrong. mathoverflow.net/questions/230260/… and also a follow up question, mathoverflow.net/questions/230271/…
Apr 19, 2016 at 14:43 comment added Asaf Karagila I am almost sure that you asked this question not too long ago.
Apr 19, 2016 at 11:24 comment added Joel David Hamkins You might also be interested in this question, concerning two inequivalent concepts of even cardinalities: mathoverflow.net/q/69461/1946
Apr 19, 2016 at 8:56 answer added Mohammad Golshani timeline score: 10
Apr 19, 2016 at 8:43 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0