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Apr 27, 2016 at 16:19 vote accept Guillaume Brunerie
Apr 27, 2016 at 16:18 comment added Denis Nardin @GuillaumeBrunerie Yes, in fact it is basically part of the definition, although the condition you ask about is more related to associativity than commutativity (Note: I use associative and commutative ring spectrum as synonymous to $E_1$ and $E_\infty$-ring spectrum respectively. The usage you can find in old papers is different but hopefully it's disappearing by now)
Apr 27, 2016 at 16:14 comment added Guillaume Brunerie Thanks! Do you know if it goes both ways? I mean, is what I’m looking for somehow an essential part of the fact that the Eilenberg-MacLane spectrum is a commutative ring spectrum ? (if that means something)
Apr 16, 2016 at 15:04 history answered Denis Nardin CC BY-SA 3.0