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Apr 13, 2016 at 19:30 comment added Emil Jeřábek Now that I think about it, one can show directly without any density argument that R embeds in the order: fix an enumeration of Q by natural numbers, and map each real to the set of codes of rationals that precede it.
Apr 13, 2016 at 18:55 comment added Joel David Hamkins You are right, and my argument is wrong. I'll edit later. {}<{0} and there is nothing between.
Apr 13, 2016 at 16:54 comment added Emil Jeřábek @Joel: I may misunderstand the definition, but it seems to me that N < N-{1} < N-{0}. You even claim yourself in another comment that the order is dense on cofinite sets, which these two sets are.
Apr 13, 2016 at 14:29 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Apr 13, 2016 at 14:19 comment added Nate Eldredge If I'm not mistaken, you can embed your order into Baire space $\mathbb{Z}^\omega$, with its lexicographic order, by listing the elements of a set in increasing order and padding out finite sets with -1. And I'm pretty sure you can't embed $\omega_1$ into Baire space. According to this, you can embed the lex order on Baire space into the reals with their usual order (specifically the irrationals) and you definitely can't embed $\omega_1$ in the reals.
Apr 13, 2016 at 14:19 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 6
Apr 13, 2016 at 14:14 comment added Joel David Hamkins Emil, it isn't dense on the infinite sets, since $\mathbb{N}<\mathbb{N}-\{0\}$, but there is nothing in between. But it is dense on the finite sets.
Apr 13, 2016 at 13:47 comment added Emil Jeřábek The restriction of this order to infinite sets is a dense order, hence it contains a copy of Q, hence it contains a copy of any countable linear order.
Apr 13, 2016 at 13:31 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0
Changed definition of $<$
Apr 13, 2016 at 13:23 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0