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Apr 14, 2016 at 19:12 vote accept Michael Albanese
Apr 13, 2016 at 21:32 history edited Michael Albanese CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2016 at 21:31 comment added Michael Albanese @QiaochuYuan: You're right, that is a more natural definition and it seems to be the one that others use. I will edit accordingly.
Apr 13, 2016 at 21:07 comment added Qiaochu Yuan I'm a little confused about this definition of homotopy sphere. Surely what you want is a manifold homotopy equivalent to the sphere? I think your definition happens to be equivalent, but in a somewhat indirect way, which seems a little misleading.
Apr 13, 2016 at 1:22 answer added Igor Belegradek timeline score: 26
Apr 12, 2016 at 20:37 comment added Qiaochu Yuan @Mariano: presumably it means homeomorphic to the usual sphere.
Apr 12, 2016 at 20:16 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez What does "topologically standard" mean?
Apr 12, 2016 at 19:19 comment added Ryan Budney I suppose it depends on what you call smoothing theory. The transition from topological to PL or smooth structure is what I'm calling smoothing theory. You don't need the full machine at this step, but you need the basics of it.
Apr 12, 2016 at 19:16 comment added mme @RyanBudney In high dimensions it should be easier than smoothing theory, because homotopy spheres are all topologically standard, no?
Apr 12, 2016 at 18:47 comment added Ryan Budney I believe the answer is no for homotopy spheres, although I won't be able to assemble all the references here. In dimension 3 and below it's classical all manifolds can be smoothed. In dimension 4 it follows by Freedman's work -- the smoothing obstruction requires some homology to exist. In high dimensions it pops out of smoothing theory... but precisely who to credit or where to look I am uncertain. I would strongly suspect Kirby and Siebenmann being responsible for this. For homology spheres I believe the answer is yes, and there are some classical low-dimensional examples.
Apr 12, 2016 at 18:26 history asked Michael Albanese CC BY-SA 3.0