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removed double spaces after periods.
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kosta
kosta
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Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic, then their squares $X \times X$ and $Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. WhyWhy is this true? ItIt is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. WhatWhat about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic, then their squares $X \times X$ and $Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic, then their squares $X \times X$ and $Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Edited to fix typos. Grammar.
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Sam Nead
Sam Nead
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Why is it true that if two 4-manifolds are homeomorphic then their producssquares are diffeomorphic?

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X,Y$$X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic, then their producssquares $X \times X, Y \times Y$$X \times X$ and $Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why Why is this true? It It is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. What What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Why is it true that if two 4-manifolds are homeomorphic then their producs are diffeomorphic?

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X,Y$ are homeomorphic, then their producs $X \times X, Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Why is it true that if two 4-manifolds are homeomorphic then their squares are diffeomorphic?

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic, then their squares $X \times X$ and $Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Learned that it is true for 3-manifolds as well, so included in the question.
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kosta
kosta
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Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X,Y$ are homeomorphic, then their producs $X \times X, Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 23-manifolds and lower dimensions. Is it also correct for 3-manifolds? What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X,Y$ are homeomorphic, then their producs $X \times X, Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 2-manifolds and lower dimensions. Is it also correct for 3-manifolds? What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

Near the top of the second page of this paper, it is claimed that if two 4-manifolds $X,Y$ are homeomorphic, then their producs $X \times X, Y \times Y$ are diffeomorphic. Why is this true? It is trivially correct for 3-manifolds and lower dimensions. What about higher dimensions?

References would be greatly appreciated as well.

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kosta
kosta
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  • 8