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Apr 13, 2016 at 16:55 history closed Willie Wong
Wolfgang
Ryan Budney
Daniel Moskovich
Sebastian Goette
Not suitable for this site
Apr 12, 2016 at 18:24 answer added Fan Zheng timeline score: 0
Apr 12, 2016 at 15:52 history edited Stefan Kohl
Added top-level tag.
Apr 12, 2016 at 13:28 review Close votes
Apr 13, 2016 at 16:55
Apr 12, 2016 at 13:14 comment added Willie Wong @OP: Do you know how to prove it for $N = 0$? (As Asaf said, this is just the standard decay estimate for Fourier transforms of smooth functions.) For $N \neq 0$, you get it by the formula that frequency modulation in physical space equals translation in Fourier space. E.g. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform#Basic_properties (So in the end I also agree with Asaf that this should be asked on Math.SE instead.)
Apr 12, 2016 at 13:10 comment added Willie Wong @Asaf: $N_1$ is a vector in $\mathbb{R}^2$, so is $\omega$, the frequency. And also, I think implicitly the constant depends on $h$ and $g$, but not on $N$; otherwise as you indicated the estimate is entirely trivial.
Apr 12, 2016 at 8:31 comment added Asaf I don't understand what is $N_{1}$ (is that even a number? I'll take that as a constant number), and notice that $C=C(M,f)$ (this is written implicitly in your estimate), therefore the asymptotic expression is true because $f$ is smooth. As the lower modes are controllable by the integral of $f$, you can use this implicit $C_{M,f}$ to have control via the inequality also in the lower modes. Anyhow this is far from being a research question, and should be posted to mathstack.
S Apr 12, 2016 at 1:38 history suggested Tobias Fritz CC BY-SA 3.0
improved formatting
Apr 12, 2016 at 1:27 comment added Tobias Fritz I've improved the formatting a bit; the question is still the same.
Apr 12, 2016 at 1:25 review Suggested edits
S Apr 12, 2016 at 1:38
Apr 12, 2016 at 1:08 review First posts
Apr 12, 2016 at 1:27
Apr 12, 2016 at 1:05 history asked W.314 CC BY-SA 3.0