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Sep 28, 2020 at 14:39 comment added annie marie cœur also is this correct that: $$Out(𝑆𝑝𝑖𝑛(8;ℝ) )=S_3$$ $$Out(SO(8;ℝ) )=Z_2?$$ $$Out(SO(8;ℝ)/Z_2 )=S_3 $$
Sep 28, 2020 at 14:38 comment added annie marie cœur the answer is long, thanks --- is this true that $$Inn(𝑆𝑝𝑖𝑛(8;ℝ) )= Inn(SO(8;ℝ) )=Inn(SO(8;ℝ)/\mathbb{Z}_2 )=SO(8;ℝ)/\mathbb{Z}_2 ?$$
Apr 12, 2016 at 7:14 vote accept Bilateral
Apr 12, 2016 at 1:17 comment added nfdc23 A linear algebraic group over a field $k$ (especially not algebraically closed; e.g., finite or $\mathbf{R}$) is a very different thing from its group of $k$-points. Please talk with a colleague or friend who knows about algebraic groups to understand the difference, which is technically very essential. For example, the algebraic groups ${\rm{SL}}_3$ and ${\rm{PGL}}_3$ over $\mathbf{R}$ are not isomorphic but ${\rm{SL}}_3(\mathbf{R}) = {\rm{PGL}}_3(\mathbf{R})$! Likewise, it is "wrong" to consider ${\mathbf{SO}}(p,q)$ as another viewpoint on ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)$; they're very different objects.
Apr 12, 2016 at 0:05 comment added nfdc23 My notation carefully distinguishes these very different objects: ${\mathbf{SO}}(p,q)$ is a smooth $\mathbf{R}$-scheme with the Zariski topology, and ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)$ is its group of $\mathbf{R}$-points (a Lie group, with "analytic" topology coming from the topology of $\mathbf{R}$). Each has a Lie algebra, and those coincide, so we can use Lie-theoretic methods very well with ${\mathbf{SO}}(p,q)$ but less so with ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)$ since the former is Zariski-connected but the latter is disconnected. The group ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)^0$ is in no sense "algebraic".
Apr 11, 2016 at 19:33 comment added Sebastian Goette I am a bit confused by the notion of a "connected algebraic group". From an algebraic point of view, $SO(p,q)$ is connected, isn't it? From a topological point of view, of course only if either $p=0$ or $q=0$. In other words, is $SO(p,q)^0$ (the real points) actually algebraic?
Apr 11, 2016 at 12:46 comment added nfdc23 My assertions are consistent since non-triviality of the outer automorphism group is claimed only for ${\rm{O}}(p,q)$ with odd $n$ in the indefinite case (with $p, q > 0$), using that ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)$ is disconnected in such cases (whereas it is connected in the definite case, used crucially in my argument for triviality of the outer automorphism group of ${\rm{O}}(n)$ for odd $n$ -- I am following the standard notation that ${\rm{O}}(n)$ corresponds to the definite, equivalently compact, case). I haven't made any claims concerning ${\rm{O}}(n)$ for even $n$. Hopefully that clarifies things.
Apr 11, 2016 at 8:36 comment added Bilateral Thanks again for your detailed answer. You say that for $n$ odd $O(p,q) = SO(p,q)\times <-1>$ does have a non-trivial outer automorphism given by $(g,z)\mapsto (g,f(z)g)$. However, then you say that for $n$ odd the outer automorphism group of $O(n)$ is trivial. In addition, @SebastianGoette says that $(g,z)\mapsto (g,f(z)g)$ is a non-trivial outer-automorphism in the $n$-even case. Am I missing something?
Apr 11, 2016 at 4:04 history edited nfdc23 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 347 characters in body
Apr 11, 2016 at 3:47 comment added nfdc23 I have added a treatment of ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)$ for odd $p, q$ with $p+q \ge 3$ at the end of the answer (again, all automorphisms turn out to be algebraic, so the outer automorphism group is of order 2). Analyzing the case of ${\rm{SO}}(p,q)$ for even $p, q \ge 2$ requires a better idea (especially when $n \ge 6$).
Apr 11, 2016 at 3:44 history edited nfdc23 CC BY-SA 3.0
treated p, q odd as well (for SO).
Apr 11, 2016 at 0:57 comment added nfdc23 Of course, in the definite case for odd $n$ the triviality of the outer automorphism group for ${\rm{O}}(n)$ reduces to that of ${\rm{SO}}(n)$ since ${\rm{O}}(n) = {\rm{SO}}(n) \times \langle -1 \rangle$ with ${\rm{SO}}(n)$ connected. So that is an alternative (albeit perhaps much heavier) approach to what is done in Goette's answer for odd $n$. The case of even $n$ requires more serious effort (as in the indefinite case).
Apr 11, 2016 at 0:46 comment added nfdc23 Hochschild's book won't help with the algebraic aspects of my argument (e.g., Dieudonne's theorem, admittedly only needed in characteristic 0); I was freely using anything I needed from the theory of linear algebraic groups, so perhaps ask a friend who knows about algebraic groups if you need some assistance with that. In the indefinite case for odd $n$ the group ${\rm{O}}(p,q) = {\rm{SO}}(p,q) \times \langle -1 \rangle$ does have a non-inner (non-algebraic!) automorphism $(g,z) \mapsto (g, f(g)z)$ for the unique surjective homomorphism $f:{\rm{SO}}(p,q) \rightarrow \langle -1 \rangle$!
Apr 11, 2016 at 0:09 comment added Bilateral Thank you very much for your answer. I have to go carefully through it and try to prove the $O(p,q)$ case along similar lines (in case this is possible). Just to know if I get the correct answer: do you know by heart if $O(p,q)$ has non-trivial outer automorphisms? The relevant reference that you recommend to understand the details of your proof is then Hochschild's book or there are others more appropriates?
Apr 10, 2016 at 23:57 history answered nfdc23 CC BY-SA 3.0