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Apr 7, 2016 at 15:05 vote accept DLN
Apr 7, 2016 at 14:55 comment added DLN Sorry. I hadn't read the solution earlier. I see that its not possible for $B$ to attend the norm in infinite dimension also. The same proof works.
Apr 7, 2016 at 14:48 comment added DLN Thanks for the solution. But in the infinite dimensional case is it possible for the operator $ B $ to actually attend its norm? I mean is there an example for which there will be a $ v $ with $ |v|=1 $ so that $ |Bv|=1 $. Since any operator in finite dimension attends its norm, I forgot to mention it in the infinite dimensional case.
Apr 7, 2016 at 14:42 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0