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Mar 23, 2016 at 10:16 comment added Jason Starr "Is it sufficient to say ..." To what are you referring? As my example shows, it is not true that every complete curve intersects the boundary of $\overline{M}_{0,0}(\mathbb{P}^n,e)$. In fact, there exists a (projective) contraction of the boundary of $\overline{M}_{0,0}(\mathbb{P}^n,e)$ discovered independenty by Anca and Andrei Mustata, by Adam Parker, and by Izzet Coskun, Joe Harris and myself. So, even for Fano complete intersections, a general point of $\overline{M}_{0,0}(X,e)$ is contained in a curve that does not intersect the boundary.
Mar 23, 2016 at 9:59 comment added user3001 Is it sufficient to say that $\bar{M}_{0,0}(X,e)\subset \bar{M}_{0,0}(\mathbb P^n,e)$ and that $\bar{M}_{0,0}(\mathbb P^n,e)$ is irreducible with divisors (hence with nonempty intersection with a complete curve) corresponding to maps with reducible domains?
Mar 20, 2016 at 21:04 comment added Jason Starr On the other hand, it seems almost certain (based on parameter counts) that for every Fano complete intersection in $\mathbb{P}^n$, for every $e>1$, every irreducible component of $\overline{M}_{0,0}(X,e)$ intersects the locus parameterizing reducible rational curves. Maybe the question has a positive answer if $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^n}(1)$ generates the Picard group of $X$.
Mar 19, 2016 at 18:46 comment added Jason Starr There are silly examples where you embed $X$ by a positive integer multiple $e>1$ of an ample invertible sheaf. Then the degree of every curve is divisible by $e$. So even the "minimal" curves have degree $\geq e$.
Mar 19, 2016 at 17:14 history asked user3001 CC BY-SA 3.0