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Mar 25, 2016 at 11:30 answer added Anso timeline score: 0
Mar 19, 2016 at 20:22 comment added Tomasz Kania Cross-posted at MSe: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1699572/…
Mar 16, 2016 at 19:32 vote accept ragrigg
Mar 16, 2016 at 11:55 comment added Ben W Not every basic sequence is bounded or bounded away from zero. In fact, for any basic sequence $(x_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ and any sequence of nonzero scalars $(a_n)_{n=1}^\infty$, the sequence $(a_nx_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ is basic. However, if $(x_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ is subsymmetric then it must be seminormalized, i.e. admit $M\in(0,\infty)$ such that $M^{-1}\leq\|x_n\|\leq M$ for every $n\in\mathbb{N}$.
Mar 16, 2016 at 11:49 answer added Ben W timeline score: 1
Mar 16, 2016 at 4:41 answer added Bill Johnson timeline score: 2
Mar 16, 2016 at 3:53 comment added ragrigg My questions about boundedness came to mind while remembering Rosenthal's $\ell_1$ Theorem. If every subsymmetric basic sequence is bounded, then that theorem would allow you to conclude that a subsequence is either weakly Cauchy or equivalent to the canonical basis of $\ell_1$. But a weakly Cauchy sequence need not be weakly null, right? Anyway, the conclusion would not be the same as the conclusion of the statement that originated my question.
Mar 16, 2016 at 2:50 history asked ragrigg CC BY-SA 3.0