Timeline for Powers of quotient maps
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 19, 2014 at 20:23 | history | edited | Jeremy Brazas | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Clarified question, included example asked for in comments.
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| May 6, 2010 at 12:58 | vote | accept | Jeremy Brazas | ||
| May 6, 2010 at 12:58 | |||||
| May 4, 2010 at 14:55 | answer | added | Joel David Hamkins | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 4, 2010 at 14:05 | comment | added | Sergei Ivanov | Are there examples where $q$ is a quotient map but $q^2$ is not? | |
| May 4, 2010 at 6:11 | comment | added | Herb | I think it is true: If q:X-->Y is a quotient map, then U in Y is open iff q<sup>-1</sup> is open in X. If q<sup>2</sup>:X<sup>2</sup>-Y<sup>2</sup> is a quotient map too, then UxU' is open in Y<sup>2</sup> iff (q<sup>-1</sup>(U),q<sup>-1</sup>(U') is open in X<sup>2</sup>. In general : q^n:X^n-->Y^n , then q^n-1(U1xU2x...Un)= q^-1(U1)xq^-1(U2)x...xq^-1(Un) is open in X^n , as the product of open sets. I think the other side follows. in | |
| May 3, 2010 at 19:40 | history | asked | Jeremy Brazas | CC BY-SA 2.5 |