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May 4, 2010 at 5:58 vote accept Russell O'Connor
May 4, 2010 at 0:00 comment added Joel David Hamkins Yes, since if $\Sigma^1_2$ statements are absolute, then so are their negations, which are the $\Pi^1_2$ statements, as well as Boolean combinations of such statements.
May 3, 2010 at 19:37 comment added Russell O'Connor The Wikipedia article suggests that it also holds for $\Pi^1_2$ statements. Is it accurate?
May 3, 2010 at 12:59 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 2.5
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May 3, 2010 at 10:22 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 2.5
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May 3, 2010 at 10:17 history answered Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 2.5