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Mar 9, 2016 at 6:08 history edited user114539 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 8, 2016 at 10:15 comment added Derek Holt The answer is $2$ for $p=2$ and $3$ for $p=3$. It would probably be possible to compute it for $p=4$ and $6$ (but was $p$ supposed to be prime?). I presume the question is mainly concerned with other values of $p$, when $F/F^p$ is either known to be infinite or at least not known to be finite.
Mar 8, 2016 at 10:03 comment added Alireza Abdollahi If $p=2$, then $[F,F]/[F^2,F]$ is generated by the image of $[x,y]$ in the quotient group. So the quotient is cyclic if $p=2$. Why you think that the exponent must be finite in the case $p=2$? $x$ and $y$ are free generators of $F$.
Mar 8, 2016 at 5:42 history asked user114539 CC BY-SA 3.0