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Mar 10, 2016 at 12:37 vote accept cll
Mar 1, 2016 at 19:00 comment added Ariyan Javanpeykar @JasonStarr Thank you for the explanation. Shame on me. smiley face
Mar 1, 2016 at 16:11 comment added Jason Starr @AriyanJavanpeykar. Define $y=\lambda(x-1)+1$. Then $\mu\ast y$ equals $\mu(y-1)+1$. But $y-1$ equals $\lambda(x-1)$. Thus $\mu\ast y$ equals $\mu\lambda(x-1)+1$. So $\mu\ast(\lambda\ast x)$ equals $(\mu\lambda)\ast x$. smiley face
Mar 1, 2016 at 15:35 answer added Thomas timeline score: 3
Mar 1, 2016 at 15:12 comment added Ariyan Javanpeykar @JasonStarr Is your second action really an action? It seems to me that $(\lambda \cdot \mu) \ast x \neq \lambda \ast (\mu\ast x)$
Mar 1, 2016 at 14:36 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 4
Mar 1, 2016 at 14:29 comment added Jason Starr No. Consider the "standard" action of $\mathbb{C}^*$ on $\mathbb{A}^1$ by $\lambda\cdot x= \lambda x$, and also the second action of $\mathbb{C}^*$ on $\mathbb{A}^1$ by $\lambda \ast x = \lambda(x-1)+1$.
Mar 1, 2016 at 14:24 review First posts
Mar 1, 2016 at 15:02
Mar 1, 2016 at 14:22 history asked cll CC BY-SA 3.0