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Mar 1, 2016 at 7:17 answer added Zurab Silagadze timeline score: 15
Feb 28, 2016 at 9:02 comment added czp @ToddTrimble thanks for your suggestions
Feb 28, 2016 at 8:59 history edited czp CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 28, 2016 at 8:48 history edited czp CC BY-SA 3.0
added 79 characters in body
Feb 27, 2016 at 16:33 vote accept czp
Feb 27, 2016 at 15:20 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 13
Feb 27, 2016 at 15:17 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 23
Feb 27, 2016 at 14:56 history reopened joro
Carlo Beenakker
GH from MO
Douglas Zare
Todd Trimble
Feb 27, 2016 at 14:49 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 3.0
added 35 characters in body; edited title
Feb 27, 2016 at 14:27 comment added Todd Trimble I'd actually like to see this reopened (if Professor Beenakker and GH did not find simple proofs, then it's worth something). The question would be improved by adding just a bit more in the way of motivation or context (e.g., what physics book and where, and what was the discussion about).
Feb 27, 2016 at 14:19 history edited GH from MO
edited tags
Feb 27, 2016 at 10:43 review Reopen votes
Feb 27, 2016 at 12:18
S Feb 27, 2016 at 10:16 history unlocked CommunityBot
S Feb 27, 2016 at 10:16 history locked CommunityBot
S Feb 27, 2016 at 10:16 history closed user1688
Alex Degtyarev
Myshkin
Emil Jeřábek
András Bátkai
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Feb 27, 2016 at 10:07 comment added Carlo Beenakker it's a sum over Matsubara frequencies, so probably arises from the identity $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(\epsilon)\tanh \epsilon\,d\epsilon=2\pi i\sum_{p=0}^\infty f[(2p+1)i\pi],$$ which is just the sum over the residues of a contour integral, but I can't quite make it work.
Feb 27, 2016 at 9:29 review Close votes
Feb 27, 2016 at 10:16
Feb 27, 2016 at 9:27 history edited Sebastian Goette CC BY-SA 3.0
TeXified the image
Feb 27, 2016 at 9:09 review First posts
Feb 27, 2016 at 9:27
Feb 27, 2016 at 9:06 history asked czp CC BY-SA 3.0