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Jun 10, 2016 at 6:19 comment added R.T MAN - Let $Z(x,y) = ({x^2} + {y^2})p{(x,y)^2} - q{(x,y)^2}$. Can we say that $Z(x,y)$ is reduced?
Feb 26, 2016 at 18:05 comment added Marcel As I said, the $|\lambda|$ part comes from the odd powers of $Q$.
Feb 26, 2016 at 18:01 comment added R.T MAN Thank you .Now let, if $Q(x)$ is even function, why does $p(x,y)=0 $?
Feb 26, 2016 at 17:50 history answered Marcel CC BY-SA 3.0