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Apr 12, 2016 at 13:45 history edited R.T MAN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 28, 2016 at 18:01 vote accept R.T MAN
Feb 26, 2016 at 18:13 answer added Mark Fischler timeline score: 3
Feb 26, 2016 at 18:05 comment added R.T MAN @MarkFischler - Ok, Now let, if $Q(x)$ is even function, why does $p(x,y)=0 $?
Feb 26, 2016 at 17:50 answer added Marcel timeline score: 3
Feb 26, 2016 at 17:31 comment added Mark Fischler @thedude Let me try to clarify what the question is "obviously" about (@RTMAN correct me if this is wrong): That determinant is obviously a real function of $x$ and $y$ ($D(x,y)$. But functions of the form of a polynomial in the two variables, plus another polynomial times $\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$, are a rather thin subset of all possible functions. Prove that $D(x,y)$ is of that form.
Feb 26, 2016 at 16:38 history edited R.T MAN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 26, 2016 at 16:12 comment added R.T MAN @IgorKhavkine - I had a mistake before.Fixed it.
Feb 26, 2016 at 15:39 history edited R.T MAN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 26, 2016 at 15:19 comment added Igor Khavkine The notation is very confusing. Is $p(x,y)$ fixed in advance or is it to be determined to satisfy the equation in your question? What is the relation between $q(x,y)$ and $\mathrm{q}(\lambda)$? Do you distinguish between $q$ and $\mathrm{q}$, or between $w$ and $\mathrm{w}$, etc.? Better not use \rm in math formulas unless you really know what you are doing.
Feb 26, 2016 at 14:44 comment added thedude If $t$ is real, and $P^*P$ is also real, isn't it obvious that the determinant is real?
Feb 26, 2016 at 14:16 history edited R.T MAN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 26, 2016 at 14:06 comment added thedude 1) If $t$ is an eigenvalue, shoudn't that determinant be zero? 2) Since you don't say anything about $q(x,y)$ and $p(x,y)$, you are just asking why the determinant is real?
Feb 26, 2016 at 14:01 history asked R.T MAN CC BY-SA 3.0