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Feb 23, 2016 at 22:36 vote accept A random mathematician
Feb 23, 2016 at 22:23 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu According to your question $A(\lambda)$ is an area. Kostya's formula is correct and it is a trick frequently used in probability theory when computing the expectation of a nonnegative random variable $X$, $$E[X]=\int_0^\infty P(X>\lambda)d\lambda.$$
Feb 23, 2016 at 22:20 comment added Kostya_I No, $A(\lambda)=Area({x:f(x)>\lambda})$.
Feb 23, 2016 at 20:27 history answered Kostya_I CC BY-SA 3.0