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Mar 17, 2016 at 19:10 vote accept user88026
Feb 23, 2016 at 2:21 history edited Will Chen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 23, 2016 at 1:44 answer added Ian Agol timeline score: 7
Feb 23, 2016 at 1:02 comment added user88026 Actually I would like to verify that those groups satisfy the following two properties: (M) every finite subgroup is contained in a maximal finite subgroup and (NM) If M is a finite maximal subgroup then N(M) its normalizer it is equal to M.
Feb 23, 2016 at 0:03 comment added Venkataramana The answer is no, in general. Why do you want to know?
Feb 22, 2016 at 23:36 review First posts
Feb 22, 2016 at 23:38
Feb 22, 2016 at 23:34 history asked user88026 CC BY-SA 3.0