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Feb 22, 2016 at 19:37 comment added Mark Fischler That's true. I originally framed this in terms of Markov processes of finite depth, but since I had a feeling that the answer was going to be that the implication holds anyway, I wanted to make the original "givens" as weak as was practical, so as to make the implication as meaningful as was practical.
Feb 22, 2016 at 19:34 vote accept Mark Fischler
Feb 22, 2016 at 19:02 answer added Robert Israel timeline score: 0
Feb 22, 2016 at 18:39 comment added Robert Israel If "the transition probabilities from $s_i \to s_j$ at time $t$ are permitted to depend not only on the state at time $t−1$ but also on all previous states", this is not what I'd call a Markov process with the given set of states. Perhaps you can call it a Markov process on a different state space $\bigcup_n S^n$, where the new "state" incorporates the history of the process.
Feb 22, 2016 at 17:31 history edited Mark Fischler CC BY-SA 3.0
I seem unable to spell the word "for"!
Feb 22, 2016 at 17:15 history asked Mark Fischler CC BY-SA 3.0