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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jul 13, 2016 at 4:51 answer added Jack Buttcane timeline score: 0
Feb 20, 2016 at 11:48 history edited Rex CC BY-SA 3.0
added 137 characters in body
Feb 19, 2016 at 12:27 answer added David Loeffler timeline score: 1
Feb 19, 2016 at 7:40 comment added Rex @David: From the article of Clozel, I got the impression that he is considering a non vacuous case, hence, the question. I think I now understand what is going on. For a modular form $f$ of weight $k$, one can construct the function $\varphi_f$ on $G(\mathbb{A})$ which satisfies the property that $\varphi_f(xr(\theta))=e^{-ik\theta}\varphi_f(x)$ where $r(\theta)$ is the $2 \times 2$ matrix given by (Cos $\theta\,$ -Sin $\theta$; Sin $\theta\,$ Cos $\theta$). Now corresponding to $f$ one has $g$ as above, and the point seems to be that $\varphi_g(xr(\theta))=e^{ik\theta}\varphi_g(x)$.
Feb 19, 2016 at 1:54 comment added David Loeffler Haven't you just proven that it can't? You clearly know that $S_k = 0$ for $k \le -2$ and that $S_k$ is non-zero if and only if $\overline{S_k}$ is; so what is left to say here?
Feb 18, 2016 at 14:35 history asked Rex CC BY-SA 3.0