Timeline for Does $|(X\times\{0\}) \cup (X\times\{1\})| \leq |X|$ for $X$ infinite imply ${\sf AC}$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:47 | comment | added | Dominic van der Zypen | So the statement is strictly "in between" ${\sf ZF}$ and ${\sf ZFC}$ it appears... | |
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:46 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:22 | comment | added | Asaf Karagila♦ | That is correct. | |
| Feb 5, 2016 at 10:12 | history | answered | bof | CC BY-SA 3.0 |